I’m finding that I need to make my Custody/Visitation case a little more clear, as what I’m hearing implies a misunderstanding surrounding the significance of the police reports. So let me attempt to clear this up.
I was issued a custody and visitation order, in October 28, 2011, which gave me custody and visitation with my son.
Within that same court order, I was given visitation with my son for certain days of the week and for certain times during those days.
As the years went by since that same order was made, we had moved the days around to suit our work schedules.
After having followed one of our verbal visitation agreements for a number of years, my son’s mother had stopped following that agreement; and she then subsequently refused to follow the court ordered visitation schedule.
Posts that each include a police report which document a violation of the verbal visitation agreement*
Posts that each include a police report which document a violation of the court ordered visitation
The police reports which document the violations of the court ordered visitation, show a violation of that same order on its face. But the court did not enforce the order in spite of myself having made an official request for the court to do so.
Here is an analogy of what’s going on here: If you win a case regarding property lines for a property you own, and you build a fence on that same section of property that has been found to be yours; Then subsequently, the opposing party from the case tears down the fence, and then does not get charged with trespassing and vandalism in spite of your best efforts to get the courts and police to do so; Then this implies a significant problem with the courts as, if the court orders are demonstrated as not being enforceable, then people will have no confidence with orders and they will become worthless. In other words, we don’t want people receiving court orders, and then thinking that they need to be prepared for the possibility that the order will simply go unenforced. If this is how the courts operate, then they serve no purpose, and have no legitimate power.
Powers of the government comes from its cohesiveness. If the courts and government do not follow the laws or the orders that it produces, then the only capacity that the government has to enforce its own orders is with its capacity as a dominating power of force. This is because, without being an entity of a cohesively applied law, it has no merit from any integrity (and this wouldn’t just apply to the United States). This is why the powers of the United States government which are derived from the laws and rulings of today, cannot deviate from the powers of government as derived from the constitution. If they do, then we are not a democracy or even a democratic republic, we are an oligarchy; where that which is enforced, is determined exclusively by those in power.
So now I have a question, can the parties named in this order here below, depend on it being enforced or otherwise honored and if so, how is this same order below different than my Custody and Visitation order for October 28, 2011 which makes this so?
*I feel that the greatest significance to the police reports which document the violations of the verbal agreement, is that they had shown that there was a problem with my visitation and also, that it was the fault of my son’s mother whom was acting on the consideration(s) that I don’t need to see my son, which are untrue. Also, if she feels that I don’t need to see my son, this clearly (emphasis added) conflicts with the Custody and Visitation order of October 28, 2011 which says that I get to see him… So, because of this, shouldn’t the County which made the order of Custody and Visitation, then start to take action to attempt to remedy this same misconception of my son’s mother, and reinstate the effect of the order? Maybe something to the effect of, having the police talk to my son’s mother and then either, remedy her misconceptions regarding my parental rights as set fourth by the Custody and Visitation order, or establishing that my son’s mother’s deviation from the verbal agreement can be considered a violation of the Custody and Visitation order for October 28, 2011? In other words, if my son’s mother isn’t letting me see my son, because she feels that I’m not entitled to, then these same violations of the verbal agreement would then constitute a violation of the Custody and Visitation order, because the order says I get to see my son and she isn’t complying with that.